Hoping that you are in good health on this cool, late October afternoon.
Regarding our existing law on the crime of "breaking and entering," I do have reason to bring up a suggestion that may be of interest to many of your constituents.
Now, suppose for a moment that a certain person A has property that a certain person, (shall we say B) comes across one day. Person B then uses the property of person A for his or her own purpose(s) without the consent of person A. While person B does not in any way, shape or form damage this said property, would not you find this action to be wrong? Is this not indeed, in essence, an act of theft? Without a word of permission given by person A, shall it be acceptable for person B to continue to use property that belongs NOT to him/her? Personally, I believe that this matter ought to be thoroughly discussed and considered by the law in due course.
I thank you in advance for the government's attention on this issue of property rights.